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Can She Ask Her Husband To Use A Condom To Protect Herself If He Marries Another Wife?
Islamic Rulings -
Living Shariah Verdicts
Islamic Questions & Answers
In this day and age a lot of people step out of
there marriage and make kids that r not there husband
and bring back S.T.Ds so can I ask my husband to use
condoms with me to protect myself if he take on a
second wife.
Praise be to Allaah.
Firstly:
Zina is a major sin, great calamity and the worst of
conduct, and its consequences in this world, in the
Hereafter and in the grave are severe.
Allah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“Made lawful to you this day are At-Tayyibaat [all
kinds of Halaal (lawful) foods, which Allaah has made
lawful (meat of slaughtered eatable animals, milk
products, fats, vegetables and fruits)]. The food
(slaughtered cattle, eatable animals) of the people of
the Scripture (Jews and Christians) is lawful to you
and yours is lawful to them. (Lawful to you in
marriage) are chaste women from the believers and
chaste women from those who were given the Scripture
(Jews and Christians) before your time when you have
given their due Mahr (bridal-money given by the
husband to his wife at the time of marriage), desiring
chastity (i.e. taking them in legal wedlock) not
committing illegal sexual intercourse, nor taking them
as girlfriends. And whosoever disbelieves in Faith,
[i.e. in the Oneness of Allaah and in all the other
Articles of Faith i.e. His (Allaah’s) Angels, His Holy
Books, His Messengers, the Day of Resurrection and Al-Qadar
(Divine Preordainments)], then fruitless is his work;
and in the Hereafter he will be among the losers”
[al-Maa’idah 5:5].
Ibn Katheer (may Allah have mercy on him) said:
Just as it is stipulated that women be chaste -- which
means refraining from zina -- it is also stipulated
for men; a man should also be chaste. Hence Allah says
“not committing illegal sexual intercourse”, referring
to adulterers and fornicators who do not refrain from
committing any sin and do not control themselves. “nor
taking them as girlfriends” means: limiting himself to
one woman or mistress. End quote.
Tafseer Ibn Katheer, 3/43
Shaykh al-Islam [Ibn Taymiyah] (may Allah have mercy
on him) said:
If a woman's husband commits zina with another woman,
and does not distinguish between halaal and haraam,
his intimacy with that woman is the same as the
intimacy of the zaani with a woman with whom he is
committing zina, even if no one else is intimate with
her, because one of the forms of zina is taking a
girlfriend or mistress.
End quote. Majmoo‘ al-Fataawa, 32/145
Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allah have mercy on him)
was asked:
A woman saw her husband committing zina -- Allah
forbid. What should she do?
He replied:
She should advise him, especially if that was the
first time and she has children from him. But if he
persists in doing that then she should seek an
annulment of the marriage. However, in general, she
should weigh up the pros and cons and decide on that
basis. End quote.
Thamaraat al-Tadween min Masaa’il Ibn ‘Uthaymeen, p.
112
See also the answer to question no. 115107
Secondly:
The wife does not have the right to ask her husband to
use condoms during marital relations, unless there is
a reason for doing that. The fact that he has married
another woman in a legitimate shar‘i marriage does not
make it permissible for her to do that, unless it is
clear that the husband himself has a disease, such as
AIDS and the like, which could be transmitted to her
through sex, or it becomes clear that the other wife
has a disease of this type, or the husband was in a
haraam relationship outside of marriage. In that case
she has the right to ask him to use condoms, so as to
ward off the harm that is thought to exist in him,
until it becomes clear that he is free of that. If it
becomes clear that he is healthy and there is no
obvious source of danger of transmitting disease
through him, then she no longer has the right to ask
him to do that. If it becomes clear that he does have
a disease which could harm her or be transmitted to
her, then she has the right to ask him to carry on
using it; indeed, in that case she has the right to
ask him to annul the marriage, if his sickness poses a
danger to her and it is something that it is difficult
to treat or avoid, such as AIDS and the like.
See: al-Ahkaam al-Shara‘iyyah al-Muta‘alliqah bi Marda
al-AIDS, by Dr. ‘Umar Sulaymaan al-Ashqar, in
Diraasaat Fiqhiyyah fi Qadaaya Tibbiyyah (1/25 ff).
And Allah knows best
Types Of
Conditions In The Marriage Contract: The Basic
Principle For Both Partners
I am a young man who is engaged and is going to
get married. I've heard that at the time of the
marriage contract, the wife can stipulate conditions
in the contract. My question is: what are the limits
of these conditions? What happens if the conditions
are broken? Is it possible to give the wife herself
the right to divorce (talaaq) if I break these
conditions? Is it possible for the condition to be,
for example, that I will not take another wife and in
the event that I do take another wife she will be
divorced from me?
I hope you can advise and explain this matter in
detail. May Allah reward you with good.
Praise be to Allaah.
The basic principle with regard to the conditions
stipulated by both partners in the marriage contract
is that it is a valid condition that must be
fulfilled, and it is not permissible to break it,
because the Prophet (blessings and peace of Allah be
upon him) said: “The condition which most deserves to
be fulfilled is that by means of which intimacy
becomes permissible for you.” Narrated by al-Bukhaari
(2721) and Muslim (1418).
Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allah have mercy on him)
said:
The basic principle with regard
to conditions in the marriage contract is that they
are valid, unless there is proof to show that they are
not valid. The evidence for that is the general
meaning of the evidence which speaks of fulfilling
covenants:
“O you who believe! Fulfil (your)
obligations”
[al-Maa’idah 5:1]
“And fulfil (every) covenant.
Verily, the covenant will be questioned about”
[al-Isra’ 17:34]
and in the hadeeth narrated from
the Messenger (blessings and peace of Allah be upon
him) it says: “The Muslims are bound by their
conditions, except a condition that forbids what is
permissible or permits what is forbidden.” Narrated by
al-Tirmidhi (1352). And he (blessings and peace of
Allah be upon him) said: “Whoever stipulates a
condition that is not in the Book of Allaah it is not
valid, even if he stipulates a hundred times.”
Narrated by al-Bukhaari (2155) and Muslim (1504).
To sum up, the basic principle
with regard to conditions is that they are permissible
and valid, whether they are to do with marriage,
buying and selling, renting, pledges or mortgages, or
awqaaf. The ruling on the conditions that are
stipulated in contracts, if they are valid, is that
they must be fulfilled, because of the general meaning
of the verse (interpretation of the meaning):
“O you who believe! Fulfil (your)
obligations”
[al-Maa’idah 5:1].
End quote.
Al-Sharh al-Mumti’, 5/241
(Egyptian edition).
For examples of that ,see the
answers to questions number 20757 and 10343
With regard to the woman
stipulating that the husband should not take a second
wife, the opinion of some scholars is that this
condition is permissible, and if the husband breaks
it, the wife has the right to annul the marriage and
take her dues in full.
Ibn Qudaamah (may Allah have
mercy on him) said:
If he stipulates that he will not
take her out of her house or her city, or that he will
not travel with her or will not take another wife,
then he is obliged to fulfil that, and if he does not
do so, then she has the right to annul the marriage.
This was narrated from ‘Umar, Sa’d ibn Abi Waqqaas and
‘Amr ibn al-‘Aas (may Allah be pleased with them). End
quote.
Al-Mughni, 9/483
Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allah
have mercy on him) said:
If she stipulates that he should
not take another wife, this is permissible. Some of
the scholars said that it is not permissible, because
it is restricting the husband in something that Allah
has permitted to him, and it is contrary to the
Qur'aan in which it says (interpretation of the
meaning): “then marry (other) women of your choice,
two or three, or four” [al-Nisa’ 4:3]. It may be said
in response to that that she has a reason to ask him
not to marry another wife and she is not transgressing
against anyone. The husband himself is the one who is
giving up his right; if he has the right to marry more
than one, he is giving it up. So what is to prevent
this condition being valid?
Hence the correct view with
regard to this matter is the view of Imam Ahmad (may
Allah have mercy on him), which is that this condition
is valid. End quote.
Al-Sharh al-Mumti’, 5/243
It should be noted that if the
husband breaks this condition, his wife does not
become divorced as a result of that, rather she has
the right to annul the marriage, and she may either
annul it or give up the condition and accept what her
husband has done, and remain as his wife.
Shaykh Saalih al-Fawzaan (may
Allah preserve him) said:
Among other conditions that are
valid in marriage is if she stipulates that he should
not take another wife. If he fulfils the condition
(all well and good), otherwise she has the right to
annul the marriage because of the hadeeth, “The
condition which most deserves to be fulfilled is that
by means of which intimacy becomes permissible for
you.” Similarly, if she stipulates that he should not
separate her from her children or parents, this
condition is valid and if he breaks it, she has the
right to annul the marriage. If she stipulates that
her mahr should be increased or that it should be in a
specific currency, the condition is valid and binding,
and he has to fulfil it, and she has the right of
annulment if it is broken. In that case she has the
choice and may decide any time she wants and may annul
it whenever she wants, so long as there is nothing on
her part to indicate that she accepts it if she knows
that he has gone against what was stipulated; in that
case she would no longer have the option.
‘Umar ibn al-Khattaab (may Allah
be pleased with him) said to the one who he ruled was
obliged to fulfil what his wife had stipulated, when
the man said, “Divorce us in that case,” ‘Umar said:
It is a must to fulfil the conditions, because of the
hadeeth, “The believers are bound by their
conditions.” Al-‘Allaamah Ibn al-Qayyim said: It is
obligatory to fulfil these conditions which are the
most deserving of being fulfilled. This is what is
implied by sharee’ah, reason and sound analogy, if the
woman did not agree to become a man's wife except on
these conditions, and if it were not obligatory to
fulfil them, then the marriage contract would not be
based on mutual agreement, and it would be making
something obligatory upon her that Allah and His
Messenger have not made obligatory. End quote.
Al-Mulakhkhas al-Fiqhi (2/345,
346)
And Allah knows best.
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